Platypus:
The Christian God was perfectly OK with having slaves in the Old Testament. It seems like keeping slaves was not objectively morally wrong at all. Is it morally right to torture people forever just because you want to do it?
. The Xtian god is a great example of how objective moral do not exist, not even for gods. Can we close this case and move to the next "proof"?
Red Herring
A Red Herring is a fallacy in which an irrelevant topic is presented in order to divert attention from the original issue. The basic idea is to "win" an argument by leading attention away from the argument and to another topic. This sort of "reasoning" has the following form:
Topic A is under discussion.
Topic B is introduced under the guise of being relevant to topic A (when topic B is actually not relevant to topic A).
Topic A is abandoned.
This sort of "reasoning" is fallacious because merely changing the topic of discussion hardly counts as an argument against a claim.
http://www.nizkor.or...ed-herring.html
So I will decline to answer, especially when you do not answer amy of my questions. I think I have shown you have no basis to make any objective moral judgements So you turn to namecalling.
But if the topic is relevant, you are the one committing a logical fallacy.
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I asked Platypushttp://www.longecity...270#entry635144http://www.longecity...270#entry635315http://www.longecity...270#entry635315http://www.longecity...270#entry635365(Even Repeated several times more)
““Lets see how you apply this. In order to win the second world war we believed it was right to carpet bomb Germany killing men, women and children. The Nazis fired rockets into Great Brittan with little concern who they hit. Each side believed in their own sides moral position.”http://www.longecity...270#entry635315Based on your view, were they both right? Neither was right. One or the other was right.”No answer by Platypus. This is typical of his style for the last few years. I wanted to see, given his theory of there being no objective morals,
“This one is easy: there are no "objective" moral values.“ How would he apply his position?
http://www.longecity...270#entry635060As I said this “easy,” one was repeatedly put to the test. So what did Platypus do? He started attacking Theists and God.
1. The Old Testament. Between four and six thousand years ago, the Israelites had a war and some details were recorded in the Bible. There is no other record. You may study this if you wish.
http://www.amazon.co...ntt_at_ep_dpi_1You either believe the Biblical reasons or account or you have no other evidence. Platypus rejects the Biblical reasons and puts his own spin on it. Christians believe the Biblical reasons for this war and have no other evidence.
2. Slavery:
http://www.amazon.co...ntt_at_ep_dpi_1Excerpt:
“We should compare Hebrew debt-servanthood (many translations render this “slavery”) more fairly to apprentice-like positions to pay off debts — much like the indentured servitude during America’s founding when people worked for approximately 7 years to pay off the debt for their passage to the New World. Then they became free.
In most cases, servanthood was more like a live-in employee, temporarily embedded within the employer’s household. Even today, teams trade sports players to another team that has an owner, and these players belong to a franchise. This language hardly suggests slavery, but rather a formal contractual agreement to be fulfilled — like in the Old Testament.3
Through failed crops or other disasters, debt tended to come to families, not just individuals. One could voluntarily enter into a contractual agreement (“sell” himself) to work in the household of another: “one of your countrymen becomes poor and sells himself” (Leviticus 25:47). A wife or children could be “sold” to help sustain the family through economically unbearable times — unless kinfolk “redeemed” them (payed their debt). They would be debt-servants for 6 years.4 A family might need to mortgage their land until the year of Jubilee every 50 years.5
Note: In the Old Testament, outsiders did not impose servanthood — as in the antebellum South.6 Masters could hire servants “from year to year” and were not to “rule over … [them] ruthlessly” (Leviticus 25:46,53). Rather than being excluded from Israelite society, servants were thoroughly embedded within Israelite homes.
The Old Testament prohibited unavoidable lifelong servanthood — unless someone loved his master and wanted to attach himself to him (Exodus 21:5). Masters were to grant their servants release every seventh year with all debts forgiven (Leviticus 25:35–43). A slave’s legal status was unique in the ancient Near East (ANE) — a dramatic improvement over ANE law codes: “Hebrew has no vocabulary of slavery, only of servanthood.”7
An Israelite servant’s guaranteed eventual release within 7 years was a control or regulation to prevent the abuse and institutionalizing of such positions. The release-year reminded the Israelites that poverty-induced servanthood was not an ideal social arrangement. On the other hand, servanthood existed in Israel precisely because poverty existed: no poverty, no servants in Israel. And if servants lived in Israel, this was voluntary (typically poverty-induced) — not forced.”
Christians do not believe in slavery
3. As for torturing people where does God say this is alright?
Deep Thought, have you thought deeply about this? How have I committed a logical fallacy? Platypus won't answer my questions and instead name calls. You seem to agree with it!