In simple neurochemistry terms, what does it mean? Some people seem to get an immediate and lasting "buzz" off an espresso shot or coffee or red bull, whereas others are completely unaffected.
I'm the type who can drink a coffee after dinner and still be able to sleep when I want to. Now, the caffeine may be subtly disturbing my sleep quality in some ways, but I don't feel stimulated in any way while I take it. I just drink it because I like the taste.
Does this mean you already have sufficient levels of dopamine, and thus are unaffected by its further enhancement? Or does it mean you're low in dopamine - so low you're actually insensitive to its effects. If the former were true, wouldn't it mean that people who don't exhibit ADD tendencies won't get a boost from stimulants of any kind, e.g., nicotine, caffeine, etc. But this explanation never holds up in my experience, as people who are already highly focused and alert seem to get even MORE of a jolt from caffeine. If the latter were true, wouldn't it imply that people who DO display ADD traits wouldn't benefit from stimulants? But this reasoning, too, doesn't hold up as people on the attention-deficit spectrum ARE helped in many ways by use of dopaminergics, i.e. stimulant medications.
Why don't I benefit from caffeine or other supposedly stimulating substances? If I live in a chronic state of fatigue, lack of alertness, and scatter-brained inattentiveness, shouldn't caffeine HELP me?
Edited by pheanix997, 04 May 2014 - 04:53 AM.